The Jewish background of the Lord's Prayer runs deeper than "Jesus was Jewish." A Hebrew word study of yitqaddesh, the Talmud's rabbi prayers, and what the disciples were really asking for.
Great write up. The shema / amidah connection is interesting. Some rabbi's consider the shema the act of taking on the yoke of the kingdom of heaven. When viewed in ancient near east treaty context, this yoke idea makes sense. Oaths were initially sworn in front of witnesses, but then they were reinforced, renewed and even embodied in various ways on a schedule. I believe the shema was the daily renewal of the sinai berit's oath. Likewise, my thesis is that the lord's prayer was the daily renewal of the oath of alelgiance sworn at baptism.
Do you think there is value in a retroversion of this pattern for prayer in Aramaic? While conceding that a modern retroversion in Hebrew is helpful and may well have been what was prayed, is it not more likely it was prayed in the vernacular Aramaic? My exploration of an Aramaic version has opened horizons beyond Christian and Hebrew scholarship. What do you think?
Yes I do because they really do matter here. We can see Yeshua leading with teaching the disciples to address GOD boldly before they ever get to the bread. It's not surprising to me in the least because Biblical Jewish prayer usually addresses God this way because it's the kind of petition that happens inside a covenant relationship.
Great write up. The shema / amidah connection is interesting. Some rabbi's consider the shema the act of taking on the yoke of the kingdom of heaven. When viewed in ancient near east treaty context, this yoke idea makes sense. Oaths were initially sworn in front of witnesses, but then they were reinforced, renewed and even embodied in various ways on a schedule. I believe the shema was the daily renewal of the sinai berit's oath. Likewise, my thesis is that the lord's prayer was the daily renewal of the oath of alelgiance sworn at baptism.
Do you think there is value in a retroversion of this pattern for prayer in Aramaic? While conceding that a modern retroversion in Hebrew is helpful and may well have been what was prayed, is it not more likely it was prayed in the vernacular Aramaic? My exploration of an Aramaic version has opened horizons beyond Christian and Hebrew scholarship. What do you think?
I absolutely do!
Do you have any thoughts or insights of the use of the imperative in the passage?
Yes I do because they really do matter here. We can see Yeshua leading with teaching the disciples to address GOD boldly before they ever get to the bread. It's not surprising to me in the least because Biblical Jewish prayer usually addresses God this way because it's the kind of petition that happens inside a covenant relationship.